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供参考,具体以高考试卷为准:全国1卷:河南、河北、山西、江西、湖北、湖南、广东、安徽、福建、山东全国2卷:甘肃、青海、内蒙古、黑龙江、吉林、辽宁、宁夏、新疆、陕西、重庆< 全国3卷:云南、广西、贵州、四川、西藏海南半自主命题:语文、文数、理数、英语全国2卷,其余科目自主命题自主命题:浙江、上海、江苏、北京、天津全国各省高考改革方案隐藏的真相高校招生考试科目与分值【均不分文理】所有省级行政区域均突破文理界限,由学生跨文理选科。【均设置“3+3”的考试科目】(1)均实行学考纳入高考评价体系前一个“3”为统一高考科目“语文、数学、外语”,除个别省级行政区域仍执行教育部委托的分省命题任务外,绝大部分省级行政区域均由教育部考试中心统一命题;后一个“3”为高中学业水平考试(简称“学考”)科目,由各省级行政区域自主命题。 2)均实行必考与选考的结合前一个“3”为必考科目,后一个“3”为选考科目。【高中学考科目的考试实施和赋分办法】 1、高中学考的具体安排和作用,浙江做法:浙江省实行高中学考与高考选考科目在同一次考试中相结合的办法:同一科目命制两种试卷,一种为“必考题”(满分70分),作为单纯的“高中学考”;一种为“必考题+加试题”(满分100分)。“一考两用”,其中“必考题”的成绩作为“高中学考”成绩使用,是高中学生毕业和高中同等学力认定的主要依据,也可用于“三位一体”综合评价招生、高职提前招生等特殊类型招生;“必考题+加试题”作为“高考选考”成绩使用。两种试卷同时在不同试场开考,后一种试卷多半个小时的考试时间,其中必考题试题相同。两种试卷的考试均允许学生跨年级参加,每位考生最多有两次考试机会。其他省级行政区域思路:其他省级行政区域把高中学考区分为合格性考试和等级性考试,分开组织考试其中,山西、河南和青海,与浙江一样,不称为“等级性考试”,而分别称为“选考科目”、“选考科目考试”和“选科考试”。合格性考试分散在高中三年安排,等级性考试一般安排在高三年级,仅限当年参加高考的学生参加,其中上海市对地理和生物两科分别在高二(下)和高三(下)提供两次机会,每位考生只能参加一次考试。合格性考试是高中学生毕业和高中同等学力认定的主要依据,也可用于高职分类招生等特殊类型招生,等级性考试用于统一高考招生。 2、科目数;高中学考的总科目数,高中学考的总科目数均覆盖高中阶段全部教学科目,包含音乐、体育、美术和信息技术、通用技术,有的把音乐和美术合称为艺术。有的把信息技术和通用技术合称为技术。有的把物理、化学、生物3个科目的实验操作技能测试单列为考试或考查科目。大多数把音乐、体育、美术(个别省如宁夏含信息技术、通用技术)授权市、县级教育管理部门考核。其他科目均实行全省级行政区域统考。供学生选考的科目数;浙江“7选3”,从“政治、历史、地理、物理、化学、生物、技术”7科中任选3科参加“必考题+加试题”的考试,计入高考招生总分。其他省级行政区域“6选3”,不含技术。海南省在文件中明确争取从2020年起把技术纳入,实行“7选3”,山东也表示创造条件把技术纳入,实行“7选3”。 3、等级和赋分办法;合格性考试的等级;有的省级行政区域表示在特殊情况下,把合格性考试成绩以原始成绩形式使用。如宁夏明确:“合格性考试成绩作为普通高中毕业或高中同等学力认定依据时,以合格和不合格两种方式呈现;作为高职院校分类考试招生录取依据时,以原始分提供高校录取使用”。等级性考试的级别和赋分除先行试点的上海、浙江均采用按等级赋分的办法外,28个省级行政区域有的(如天津、宁夏)在文件中明确表述等级性考试按ABCDE 5等21级赋分,计入高考总成绩的3科每科满分100分,高考招生总分满分750分;有的未明确分几个等级,但明确了计入高考总成绩的3科每科满分100分,高考招生总分满分750分;有的文件中没有明确表述,但可以推论出同样的精神实质。西藏和上海一样,计入高考总成绩的3科等级性考试“每门满分70分”、“高校招生录取总成绩总分满分为660分”。"新高考关于高中学业水平考试制度的部分设计" "新高考关于高中学业水平考试制度的部分设计" 【外语科目】所有省级行政区域外语科目均与语文、数学一样,满分为150分。外语科目均实行每个考生有两次考试机会。"部分省级行政区关于高考外语科目改革的内容" 部分省级行政区关于高考外语科目改革的内容:【其他科目考试次数】根据国务院《实施意见》“创造条件为有需要的学生提供同一科目参加两次考试的机会”的精神,在“3+3”科目设置里,浙江除外语科目外,3门选考科目均一年两考,每个学生最多有两次机会;其他省目前对外语科目提供两次机会,很多省份均表示要创造条件增加提供两次机会的科目。

2018高考英语真题

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二的一米

摘要 高考英语试题整体题型结构当中,阅读理解回答问题(包括本文将要评述的阅读理解四选一试题)占据高考试卷相当的比例。一线教学当中也会使用此类试题作为评价英语学习的方式,那么如何判断一篇英语阅读理解试题的优劣呢?本文以2819年11月浙江高考英语阅读理解B篇作为实例来进行客观分析。文章首句22个词。并非是一个短句。而且句中没有生僻词汇,也没有复杂句式。但是却没有出现本文的主题词汇summer vacation 。却巧妙地运用了forget about classroom bells and set off for grandparents homes, sleep-away camps and lifeguard stands这样的描述,引出了下面可能的主题。此处正常来说不会设立命题点,因为单从本句看,没有命题点需要的支撑信息。甚至读者也可以跃过此句直接阅读下文,因为接下来的but summer vacation 提示主题内容开始描述了。首句中可以通过阅读学习的短语为forget about ,set off for,sleep-away camps,life guard stands。假如此处欲命题的话可以命制一个简单推断题,但是干扰项不好设计。而此句在写作情感上属于比较欢快的文字,用于句首平衡了文章在语意上的表达风格。接下来But引出的转折意义并非是首句的直接转折而是引出本文的核心阐述脉络。以三个关键转折时间点为依托,突出summer vacation 的发展历程,以及每一个阶段的特点。也就是说从此处开始文章主要以时间顺序来描述。层层递进。 第一个时间点Before the civil war ,关键信息neither of which included a summer vacation ,rural ,urban……。此处命题人命制24题: 24. What did the rural school calendar before the Civil War allow children to do?A. Enjoy a summer vacation. B. Take a break each quarter. C. Have 48 weeks of study a year. D. Assist their parents with farm work. 本套试卷阅读理解部分命题人均采用了问答式提问。大约看了一下提问风格,没有特别的测试学角度意义,应该只是命题人的个人喜好而已。本题题干部分信息很完整了,个人甚至认为因为题干信息提示过多,这条题目的干扰项会是一种“倾向于绕脑的考查”,而不是纯粹的对文章主题信息的理解程度的考查。看选项,BC项是描述当时的urban school 相应情况的,所以题干限制在rural上,A项的设置还是比较好的,有对于文中信息neither of which 部分的一个理解误判的可能性。答案是D项。 接下来是时间标志词in the 1840s,而命题人也是根据三个时间发展段的相关信息来设计命题点的。文章脉络没有特殊分析价值,看试题25题干依然是全包含具体信息题干,关键词educational reformers ,in the 1840s,基本就完全制约限制了读者的思维,只需要根据提示回读原文信息即可。此题的特点是,选项B项的设置为原文信息第一段Rural(农村的)schooling was divided into summer and winter terms, leaving kids free to help with the farm work in the spring planting and fall harvest seasons.和本段中that rural schooling was not enough ,甚至可以说直接根据后者就可以否定,这种干扰项命题方式属于民间所说的原文信息反面paraphrase ,既然not enough,自然不能再shortenen 了,此干扰项的设置还可以算作阅读理解范围内的可能误判而出现的信息误差点,尽管选项内容和题干内容的信息提示都过度具体,但是可以接受。C项在原文信息链中是不存在相关信息支持的。从原文介绍summer vacation 到此处promote the study of farming,基本没有逻辑和思维关联性。原文提示farming calendar 是改革的措施之一。D项也是“张冠李戴”式的干扰项设置,原文it offered a rest for teachers,而rest则在summer vacation 的信息链条上。这就是信息链条紧密结合相关主题的阅读模式,可以有助于此类阅读理解命题的理解和解答。答案A。A项的确认可以从文章发展脉络以及第二段整体信息可以推测出来,也就是“先无后有”,而通过常识也知道summer vacation 是存在的了。 25. What did the educational reformers do in the 1840s? A. They introduced summer vacation. B. They shortened rural school terms. C. They promoted the study of farming. D. They advocated higher pay for teachers. 按照时间发展顺序看接下来一段信息,modern age,为了便于直观理解把本段内容复制过来:But people's opinion about the modern U.S.school year, which averages 180 days,is still divided. Some experts say its pleasant but lazy summer break, which took hold in the early 20th century, is one of the reasons math skills and graduation rates of U.S. high schoolers ranked well below average in two international education reports published in 2007. Others insist that with children under increasing pressure to devote their downtime to internships(实习)or study, there's still room for an institution that protects the lazy days of childhood.看段落衔接词But从语篇分析角度这是一个对于之前信息的转折,也就是说,上面的信息内容传递的核心含义在此段会有转折性的表述,此处以people’s opinion 的形式出现,而首句中的180days,school year暗示假期也是180days,根据逻辑解读判断,此假期时间是比较长的。而此句当中divided的运用说明相关观点是有分歧的,所以26题当中提到了some people unhappy 也就是其中一部分人的观点。看接下来的一个长句Some experts say its pleasant but lazy summer break, which took hold in the early 20th century, is one of the reasons math skills and graduation rates of U.S. high schoolers ranked well below average in two international education reports published in 2007. 首先作者采用了expers的观点,且提到了two international education reports published in 2007,作者如此写作的目的是为了证明观点的权威性,增加可信度。pleasant but lazy 即可以根据紧接着的举例而肯定所要强调的是lazy带来的后果。此句尽管略长,但没有影响阅读的生僻词汇和句式,所以基本可以掌握传递的信息。到此处可以完成26题: 26. Why are some people unhappy about the modern U. S. school year? A. It pushes the teachers too hard. B. It reduces the quality of education C. It ignores science instruction. D. It includes no time for internships. 因为接下来文章最后的观点属于解决问题的办法,所以和26题关联不大。此题的作答最佳方法就是直接从题目到原文到正确答案。不要细致琢磨干扰项,因为正确答案可以直接判断,防止被干扰和节约作答时间。答案为B。 简要总结: 本文文本选取还是可以的,内容为中学生相关,且具有跨文化差异性,可以辅助了解美国中学summer vacation 的相关信息。文章写作风格比较平铺直叙,按照时间顺序进行罗列,因此结构比较清晰,围绕核心话题论述比较紧凑,信息链明确。但由于文章风格是细节描述非常多,所以留给读者的深层次阅读和推理审辨阅读理解的空间不大。命题人全部设置了完全细节问答模式,把阅读者思维限制在局限范围内。题目设置优点在于干扰项的设置,大多比较巧妙(通俗说比较绕),避免了细节题目可能的弱干扰或者无效干扰。本篇作答特点是题干——原文——正确答案。尽量减少在干扰项上的徘徊。

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Elephantwoman

第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15. 答案是 C。 1.What will James do tomorrow ? A.Watch a TV program. B.Give a talk. C.Write a report. 2.What can we say about the woman? A.She's generous. B.She's curious. C.She's helpful. 3.When does the train leave? A.At 6:30. B.At 8:30. C.At 10:30. 4.How does the woman go to work? A.By car. B.On foot. C.By bike. 5.What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A.Classmates. B.Teacher and student. C.Doctor and patient. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6.What does the woman regret? A.Giving up her research. B.Dropping out of college. C.Changing her major. 7.What is the woman interested in studying now? A.Ecology. B.Education. C.Chemistry. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8.What is the man? A.A hotel manager. B.A tour guide. C.A taxi driver. 9.What is the man doing for the woman? A.Looking for some local foods. B.Showing her around the seaside. C.Offering information about a hotel. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10.Where does the conversation probably take place? A.In an office. B.At home C.At a restaurant. 11.What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A.Go to a concert. B.Visit a friend. C.Work extra hours. 12.Who is Alice going to call? A.Mike . B.Joan. C.Catherine . 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13.Why does the woman meet the man? A.To look at an apartment. B.To deliver some furniture. C.To have a meal together. 14.What does the woman like about the carpet? A.Its color. B.Its design. C. Its quality . 15.What does the man say about the kitchen? A.It's a good size. B.It's newly painted. C. It's adequately equipped . 16.What will the woman probably do next? A.Go downtown. B.Talk with her friend. C.Make payment . 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17.Who is the speaker probably talking to? A.Movie fans. B.News reporters. C.College students . 18.When did the speaker take English classes? A.Before he left his hometown. B.After he came to America. C.When he was 15 years old. 19.How does the speaker feel about his teacher? A.He's proud. B.He's sympathetic. C.He's grateful . 20.What does the speaker mainly talk about ? A.How education shaped his life. B.How his language skills improved. C.How he managed his business well. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。21.Which tour do you need to book in advance? A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23.Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras. C. Meals. D. Safety lights.24. What do we know about Susanna Reid? A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. B. She has started a new programme. C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She has had a tight budget for her family. 25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna? A. He buys cooking materials for her. B. He prepares food for her kids. C. He assists her in cooking matters. D. He invites guest families for her. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs. B. Provide some advice for the readers. C. Add some background information. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart B. Balancing Our Daily Diet C. Making yourself a Perfect Chef D. Cooking Well for Less28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times? A.They developed very fast. B. They were large in number. C. They had similar patterns. D. They were closely connected. 29. Which of the following best explains"dominant " underlined in paragraph 2? A.Complex. B. Advanced. C.Powerful. D.Modern. 30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6, 000 people at present? A.About 6,800 B.About 3,400 C.About 2,400 D.About 1,200 31. What is the main idea of the text? A. New languages will be created. B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in languages. C. Human development results in fewer languages. D. Geography determines language evolution.32. What does the author think of new devices? A. They are environment-friendly. B. They are no better than the old. C. They cost more to use at home. D. They go out of style quickly. 33. Why did Babbitt's team conduct the research? A. To reduce the cost of minerals. B. To test the life cycle of a product. C. To update consumers on new technology. D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices. 34. Which of the following uses the least energy? A. The box-set TV. B. The tablet. C. The LCD TV. D. The desktop computer. 35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices? A. Stop using them. B. Take them apart. C. Upgrade them. D. Recycle them. 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Color is fundamental in home design——something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a long day? 36 , color is the key to making a room feel the way you want it to feel. Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones. 38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows ,mirrors and baskets that most of us use to add visual interest to our rooms .Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa ,small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable . Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofas, dinner tables or bookshelves 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space. The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors .Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 . A. While all of them are useful B. Whatever you’re looking for C. If you’re experimenting with a color D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways 第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分) 第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 During my second year at the city college,I was told that the education department was offering a "free"course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits.I 41 the idea of taking the class because, after all ,who doesn't want to 42 a few dollars? More than that, I'd always wanted to learn chess. And,even if I weren’t 43 enough about free credits,news about our 44 was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which 45 I would be learning from one of the game's 46 .I could hardly wait to 47 him. Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this 48 was no game for him: he meant business. In his introduction, he made it 49 that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to 50 the class ,among other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to 51 what we would learn in class to our future professions and, 52 ,to our lives. I managed to get an A in that 53 and learned life lessons that have served me well beyond the 54 . Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I'm still putting to use what he 55 me:“The absolute most important 56 that you learn when you play chess is how to make good 57 .On every single move you have to 58 a situation ,process what your opponent(对手)is doing and 59 the best move from among all your options.”These words still ring true today in my 60 as a journalist. 41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down 42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay 43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired 44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor 45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant 46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest 47.A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat 48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job 49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible 50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe 51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare 52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally 53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment 54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation 55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised 56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill 57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments 58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control 59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate 60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61 (long) than non-runners. You don't have to run fast or for long 62 (see)the benefit. You may drink, smoke,be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running. While running regularly can't make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause). The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise… it's probably running. To avoid knee pain,you can run on soft surfaces,do exercises to 68 (strength)your leg muscles(肌肉),avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it's always 69 (energy).If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try. 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分) 第一节 短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分) 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(Λ),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的用斜线(\)划掉。 修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 注意: 1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词; 2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第l1处起)不计分。 During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed. 第二节 书面表达(满分25分) 假定你是李华,你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客,发邮件向你询问有关习俗。请你回复邮件。内容包括: 1. 到达时间; 2.合适的礼物; 3. 餐桌礼仪。 注意: 1. 词数100左右; 2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。 绝密★启用前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英 语 1-5 BCCBA 6-10BABCC 11-15ABAAC 16-20BCBCA 21-25ADDBC 26-30CDBCB 31-35CADBA 36-40BADGF 41-45BCADD 46-50CBDCB 51-55CACBA 56-60DBADA 61.longer 62.to see 63.dying 64.is 65.than 66.that \which 67.causes 68.strengthen 69.energetic 70.it \running During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and animals. Last winter when I went again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of . They also had a small pond they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by the fish. I felt that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return every two years, he agreed. 书面表达(略

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